Hello All,
I have a question regarding my 2cmpt indirect response model and specifically on the Between Subject Variability on the Kin and Kout rate constants. I am attaching a few figures below, but want to ask how it is possible for the BSV on the IC50 to be so high, while there is seemingly no between subject variability on the Kin and Kout, is this due to the different baselines of the population? Please see the tables below.
Thanks greatly!
Edited by csheme, 10 May 2017 - 04:30 PM.